Bah what kind of silly question is that everyone know that e^(pi*i) + 1 = 0 its called Euler's identity ok
e^(i*x) = cos x + i*sin x
e^(i *pi) = cos pi + i*sin pi.
since
cos pi = -1
and
sin pi = 0
e^(i *pi) = -1
e^(i \pi) +1 = 0
There we go, now for the source because I had never seen that equation before http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler%27s_identity
I was pretty damn amazed as well, did you see it in this article? anyways I think I might do some homework because that's what I'm meant to be doing :P
